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Exam : 3COM 3M0-211
Title : Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist

1. Which two are Layer 2 features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
B. User definable MAC table aging period
C. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
D. GARP Multicast Registration Protocol (GMRP)
Answer: AB

2. Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Port-based VLANs
B. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
Answer: BCD

3. Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches to create a single switch stack.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

4. Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A. Switch 5500-SI
B. Switch 5500-EI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above
Answer: C

5. Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)
A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. Creates a 12 Gbps full-duplex link between switches
C. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
D. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack
Answer: CD

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-212
Title : 3Com Certified Enterprise LAN Pre-Sales Expert version 3.2

1. Which two features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. ATM over fiber links
B. IEEE 802.3ae 10 gigabit Ethernet
C. IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet (PoE)
D. Store and forward and cut-through switching
Answer: BC

2. If you chose the Switch 5500G-EI 24 port model (3CR17250-91) for the Maluti University (MU) distribution centers, which solution would you use to connect the distribution center to the wiring closets on the upper floors?
A. Use the 10/100/1000BASE-T switch ports to connect the switch to the wiring closets
B. Use 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers on the SFP gigabit ports to connect the switch to the wiring closets
C. Use the 1-port 10G Application Media Module with 10GBASE-LR XFP Transceiver to connect the switch to the wiring closets
D. Use 3Com’s eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Distributed Fabric technology to connect the switch to the wiring closets
Answer: B

3. How should you prioritize traffic on a network, if both voice and video are present on the network?
A. Video and voice traffic should have equal priority
B. Video traffic should have higher priority than voice traffic
C. Voice traffic should have higher priority than video traffic
Answer: C

4. Which two are Layer 3 features of the Switch 5500-EI and 5500G-EI? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic IPX routing
B. Border Gateway Protocol
C. Multicast routing PIM Sparse and Dense Mode
D. Static routes for routed environments where no routing protocol is used
Answer: CD

5. If you chose the Switch 5500 family for the Maluti University (MU) distribution centers, which solution would you use to connect the distribution centers to the campus data center in Building 9?
A. Use the Switch 5500-EI PWR 28-port model (3CR17171-91) and connect the data center to the SFP slots
B. Use the Switch 5500-EI 28 port FX model (3CR17181-91) and connect the data center to the 100BASE-X SFP transceivers
C. Use the Switch 5500-EI 28 port model (3CR17161-91) and connect the data center to the SFP slots with 1000BASE-SX SFP transceivers
D. Use the Switch 5500G-EI 24 port model (3CR17250-91) and connect the data center to the 2-port 10G Application Media Module with 10GBASE-LR XFP Transceivers
Answer: D

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-250
Title : 3Com Certified Enterprise LAN Post-Sales Expert version 1.0

1. GARP VLAN Registration Protocol (GVRP) maintains and distributes Virtual LAN (VLAN) registration information only about the dynamically created VLANs using GARP.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

2. You have issued the switch debugging command debugging rip packets from the management terminal, but you are not receiving any debug output. What is the reason you are not getting any debug output from the switch?
A.RIP has not been enabled, and therefore there is no debug output
B.Output from the debugging command only goes to the syslog server
C.You forgot to issue the enable debugging command at the System View
D.You forgot to issue the terminal debugging command, directing the output to your management terminal
Answer: D

3. Which two are general Link Aggregation (LA) configuration rules that must be followed when creating an LA group? (Choose two.)
A.A member link port can only belong to one LA group
B.Aggregated links are mutually exclusive with roving analysis and mirror ports
C.A port must be configured for resilient links before it can be configured as a member of an LA group
D.LA ports can only be configured if Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is enabled on the switches
Answer: AB

4. An IP address must be configured on a switch before it can be managed using Telnet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

5. You have configured multiple OSPF areas on your network. How do the different OSPF areas communicate with each other?
A.The Designated Router (DR) uses multicast routing to broadcast advertisements to the other area DRs
B.The Designated Router (DR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas
C.The Area Border Router (ABR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas
D.The Autonomous System Border Router (ASBR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas
Answer: C

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-211
Title : Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist

1. Which two are Layer 3 features of the Switch 5500-EI and 5500G-EI? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic IPX routing
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Multicast routing PIM Sparse and Dense Mode
D. Static routes for routed environments where no routing protocol is used
Answer: CD

2. Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Port-based VLANs
B. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
Answer: BCD

3. Which two are Quality of Service (QoS) features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Configurable queue processing
B. Eight hardware queues per port
C. Eight hardware queues per switch
D. Queue priority is based only on First In First Out (FIFO) algorithm
Answer: AB

4. Which two are Layer 2 features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
B. User definable MAC table aging period
C. Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
D. GARP Multicast Registration Protocol (GMRP)
Answer: AB

5. The Switch 5500 supports multiple runtime and configuration files in its flash file system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

6. The Switch 5500 supports Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) V1, V2 and V3.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

7. Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A. Switch 5500-SI
B. Switch 5500-EI
C. Switch 5500G-EI
D. All of the above
Answer: C

8. What is a purpose of the Switch 5500 automatic VLAN and QoS assignment?
A. Preconfigures the port with the VLAN and QoS configurations
B. Always applies the administrative configuration to the port at login
C. VLAN and QoS profile are supplied by the RADIUS server when a user logs on
D. Dynamically creates a new VLAN using RADIUS Authentication of Device Access (RADA) specifications
Answer: C

9. Which Layer 3 protocol is supported on the Switch 5500-SI?
A. RIP 2
B. OSPF
C. VRRP
D. PIM Dense Mode
Answer: A

10. Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)
A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. Creates a 12 Gbps full-duplex link between switches
C. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
D. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack
Answer: CD

11. The Switch 5500 allows VLANs to be automatically assigned based on user credentials or on the MAC address of the device.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

12. Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches to create a single switch stack.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-300
Title : 3Com Certified Security Specialist Final Exam v3.0

1. Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet
Answer: A

2. What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs
Answer: B

3. True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

4. Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Answer: B

5. True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-250
Title : 3Com Certified Enterprise LAN Post-Sales Expert version 1.0

1. Which two are general Link Aggregation (LA) configuration rules that must be followed when creating an LA group? (Choose two.)
A.A member link port can only belong to one LA group
B.Aggregated links are mutually exclusive with roving analysis and mirror ports
C.A port must be configured for resilient links before it can be configured as a member of an LA group
D.LA ports can only be configured if Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is enabled on the switches
Answer: AB

2. You have issued the switch debugging command debugging rip packets from the management terminal, but you are not receiving any debug output. What is the reason you are not getting any debug output from the switch?
A.RIP has not been enabled, and therefore there is no debug output
B.Output from the debugging command only goes to the syslog server
C.You forgot to issue the enable debugging command at the System View
D.You forgot to issue the terminal debugging command, directing the output to your management terminal
Answer: D

3. What is the reason to connect the up port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the down port of the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?
A.Reliability – creates a resilient topology
B.Security – prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C.Performance – creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D.Management – enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI
Answer: A

4. You have configured multiple OSPF areas on your network. How do the different OSPF areas communicate with each other?
A.The Designated Router (DR) uses multicast routing to broadcast advertisements to the other area DRs
B.The Designated Router (DR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas
C.The Area Border Router (ABR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas
D.The Autonomous System Border Router (ASBR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas
Answer: C

5. What is the effect of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) switch command snmp-agent target-host trap address udp-domain 129.102.149.23 udp-port 5000 params securityname 3comprivate?
A.Configures the switch with a default community string name of 3comprivate
B.Enables the SNMP trap functions on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
C.Configures the switch SNMP agent to send traps to the network management station at IP address 129.102.149.23
D.Enables the SNMP trap functions and sets the default community string name of 3compublic on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
Answer: C

6. Which three are Switch 5500 configuration requirements when creating an eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric? (Choose three.)
A.All units in the stack must have the same sysname
B.All units in the stack must be running the same software version
C.A mixture of switch models can be used to create a single XRN Fabric
D.Switch 5500-SI/EI up/down ports must be enabled for fabric mode
E.A switch must be initialized after it has been added to an existing XRN Fabric
Answer: ABD

7. An IP address must be configured on a switch before it can be managed using Telnet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

8. How does the network administrator configure the up/down Switch 5500-EI/SI ports to operate in fabric mode?
A.By default, the up/down ports are enabled for fabric mode
B.Execute the command xrn-fabric authentication-mode simple
C.Execute the command resilient-arp enable x/x/x where x/x/x identifies the unit and port number
D.Execute the command fabric-port gigabit x/x/x enable where x/x/x identifies the unit and port number
Answer: D

9. Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?
A.Switch 5500-EI
B.Switch 5500-SI
C.Switch 5500G-EI
D.All of the above
Answer: B

10. GARP VLAN Registration Protocol (GVRP) maintains and distributes Virtual LAN (VLAN) registration information only about the dynamically created VLANs using GARP.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

11. Which security standard is defined by IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A.Encryption standard for network authorization
B.Port-based Network Access Control protocol standard
C.Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) standard for network authorization
D.Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA) standard for network access
Answer: B

12. Which best defines the mechanism of IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A.An authenticator requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network and validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
B.A supplicant requests access to network services; the authenticator enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authentication server validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
C.A supplicant requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authenticator validates the supplicant on behalf of the authentication server
Answer: B

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-212
Title : 3Com Certified Enterprise LAN Pre-Sales Expert version 3.2

1. Which two are Layer 3 features of the Switch 5500-EI and 5500G-EI? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic IPX routing
B. Border Gateway Protocol
C. Multicast routing PIM Sparse and Dense Mode
D. Static routes for routed environments where no routing protocol is used
Answer: CD

2. Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A. Port-based VLANs
B. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C. PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E. Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
Answer: BCD

3. Which two software features are supported by all Switch 5500 models? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF
B. PIM Sparse Mode
C. QoS prioritization and classification
D. RADIUS Authenticated Device Access (RADA)
Answer: CD

4. Which two features are supported by all Switch 5500 models? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE 802.1X Network Login
B. Eight egress queues per port
C. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
Answer: AB

5. If you chose the Switch 5500 family for the Maluti University (MU) distribution centers, which solution would you use to connect the distribution centers to the campus data center in Building 9?
A. Use the Switch 5500-EI PWR 28-port model (3CR17171-91) and connect the data center to the SFP slots
B. Use the Switch 5500-EI 28 port FX model (3CR17181-91) and connect the data center to the 100BASE-X SFP transceivers
C. Use the Switch 5500-EI 28 port model (3CR17161-91) and connect the data center to the SFP slots with 1000BASE-SX SFP transceivers
D. Use the Switch 5500G-EI 24 port model (3CR17250-91) and connect the data center to the 2-port 10G Application Media Module with 10GBASE-LR XFP Transceivers
Answer: D

6. If you chose the Switch 5500G-EI 24 port model (3CR17250-91) for the Maluti University (MU) distribution centers, which solution would you use to connect the distribution center to the wiring closets on the upper floors?
A. Use the 10/100/1000BASE-T switch ports to connect the switch to the wiring closets
B. Use 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers on the SFP gigabit ports to connect the switch to the wiring closets
C. Use the 1-port 10G Application Media Module with 10GBASE-LR XFP Transceiver to connect the switch to the wiring closets
D. Use 3Com’s eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Distributed Fabric technology to connect the switch to the wiring closets
Answer: B

7. Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches to create a single switch stack.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

8. Your Maluti University (MU) data center design uses a single Switch 8814 to support the campus backbone, the server farm and the wiring-closet connections in Building 9. Which two current Switch 8800 features address Maluti University (MU) network requirements? (Choose two.)
A. With no single point of failure, the switch creates a reliable, high-availability solution
B. ATM support over OC3 provides greater data throughput on the campus backbone
C. Cut through switching consistently provides lower latency for voice traffic on the LAN
D. Multiple priority features ensure key applications will receive the best network response (e.g., eight priority queues per port, Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) queuing and DiffServ support)
Answer: AD

9. Which two features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. ATM over fiber links
B. IEEE 802.3ae 10 gigabit Ethernet
C. IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet (PoE)
D. Store and forward and cut-through switching
Answer: BC

10. Which two hardware features are supported on the Switch 5500-EI and Switch 5500-SI switch models? (Choose two.)
A. 24 or 48 10/100 Mbps ports
B. 24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C. 2 Gbps, full-duplex XRN stacking link
D. Mix and match either switch in a single stack
Answer: AC

11. How should you prioritize traffic on a network, if both voice and video are present on the network?
A. Video and voice traffic should have equal priority
B. Video traffic should have higher priority than voice traffic
C. Voice traffic should have higher priority than video traffic
Answer: C

12. Which two features are supported by all Switch 5500 models? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic and static routing
B. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
C. IEEE 802.1X Network Login
D. Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
Answer: AC

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-600
Title : 3Com Wireless Specialist Final Exam

1. Which antenna type is typically used indoors to provide large coverage areas within a building?
A. Dipole antenna
B. Omnipole antenna
C. Yagi or semi-directional antenna
D. Patch panel or parabolic antenna
Answer: B

2. Which two are features of a Wireless LAN (WLAN) Infrastructure Basic Service Set? (Choose two.)
A. Also known as an Ad Hoc or Peer-to-Peer WLAN
B. Members communicate directly with each other within the service area
C. Created when two or more Basic Service Sets are connected together
D. Only stations exist in the service area and no access point (AP) is used
E. Management and control of the service area is performed by the access point (AP)
Answer: BE

3. Which statement is true for Wireless LAN (WLAN) data and throughput rates?
A. Data rates drop as the distance to the access point (AP) increases
B. Data rates drop as the distance to the access point (AP) decreases
C. Actual data throughput on a WLAN is about 25% of the defined throughput rate
D. Data rates on an IEEE 802.11a/g WLAN are not affected by distance from the access point (AP)
Answer: A

4. Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 8011a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

5. What does the IEEE 802.11d standard specify?
A. Defines Inter Access Point Protocol (IAPP)
B. Defines MAC-based Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism
C. Defines encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Defines the ability to fine tune Wireless LAN configuration at the Physical (PHY) Layer to comply with country-specific rules
Answer: D

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-600
Title : 3Com Wireless Specialist Final Exam

1. What was a limitation of first-generation Wireless LAN (WLAN) products?
A. Were designed to be managed individually
B. Did not support roaming for mobile computers
C. Did not provide authentication or encryption services
D. Were not designed to support large number of users
Answer: A

2. Which three are features supported on the OfficeConnect ADSL Wireless 11g Firewall Router and the 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 11g Cable/DSL Router? (Choose three.)
A. VPN termination
B. Stateful packet inspection
C. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
D. Four 10/100 Ethernet LAN ports
E. 256-bit Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) encryption
F. 40/64-bit and 128-bit Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption
Answer: DEF

3. The 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless LAN Workgroup Bridge enables a laptop, PC or printer without built-in wireless capability to connect to a wireless LAN.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

4. Which antenna type is typically used indoors to provide large coverage areas within a building?
A. Dipole antenna
B. Omnipole antenna
C. Yagi or semi-directional antenna
D. Patch panel or parabolic antenna
Answer: B

5. Which two are features of a Wireless LAN (WLAN) Infrastructure Basic Service Set? (Choose two.)
A. Also known as an Ad Hoc or Peer-to-Peer WLAN
B. Members communicate directly with each other within the service area
C. Created when two or more Basic Service Sets are connected together
D. Only stations exist in the service area and no access point (AP) is used
E. Management and control of the service area is performed by the access point (AP)
Answer: BE

6. Many access points (APs) are set up with a default configuration, known as "open system" or "open system authentication," so any station can associate and connect.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

7. What does the IEEE 802.11d standard specify?
A. Defines Inter Access Point Protocol (IAPP)
B. Defines MAC-based Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism
C. Defines encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Defines the ability to fine tune Wireless LAN configuration at the Physical (PHY) Layer to comply with country-specific rules
Answer: D

8. Click the Exhibit button at the bottom of the screen.
Choose the two features supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Managed Access Point (MAP) 2750. (Choose two.)
A. Fit access point
B. IEEE 802.1X Network Login and IPSec
C. Dual-mode radio allows operation for both IEEE 802.11b/g and IEEE 802.11a
D. Dual-mode radio allows operation for either IEEE 802.11b/g or IEEE 802.11a
Answer: AD

9. Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 8011a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

10. Which three are features of 3Com Dynamic Security Link? (Choose three.)
A. Per user, per session dynamic key encryption
B. 40-, 128- and 168-bit shared key encryption support
C. Internal database supporting up to 1,000 user names and passwords
D. Local and remote access point (AP) authentication and encryption support
E. Superior wireless security for networks without a centralized authentication server
Answer: ACE

11. What is the optimal access point (AP) channel allocation configuration on a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. APs should be configured with overlapping channels
B. APs should be configured with different non-overlapping channels
C. It makes no difference if APs use overlapping or non-overlapping channels
D. Allow APs to automatically perform the hunting process to determine the best channels
Answer: B

12. Which statement is true for Wireless LAN (WLAN) data and throughput rates?
A. Data rates drop as the distance to the access point (AP) increases
B. Data rates drop as the distance to the access point (AP) decreases
C. Actual data throughput on a WLAN is about 25% of the defined throughput rate
D. Data rates on an IEEE 802.11a/g WLAN are not affected by distance from the access point (AP)
Answer: A

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Exam : 3COM 3M0-331
Title : 3Com WAN Specialist Final Exam v2.0

1. In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments
Answer: D

2. What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Answer: B

3. In Vx code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Answer: B

4. In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments
Answer: C

5. Which term does not describe or refer to a frame relay function or parameter?
A. DE
B. CIR
C. DLCI
D. IPCP
E. FECN
Answer: D

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