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Exam : Exam Express EE0-505
Title : F5 Fire Pass V5

1. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which two ways? (Choose two.)
A.A backup snapshot file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the local PC using the command line maintenance script.
C.A backup configuration file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
D.A backup configuration file may be saved to the local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
E.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line maintenance script.
F.A backup configuration file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.
Answer: DE

2. What Answer contains the correct Source IP Address combination of the Network packet as it traverses the FirePass Server for an established Network Access connection given the following conditions?
NAPT – disabled,
Client machine IP Address – 216.34.94.17
VPN Pool Address range -104.21.47.0/24
FirePass Interface Addresses – External 110.121.32.10, Internal 205.229.151.10 -
The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.
A.216.34.94.17 — 216.34.94.17
B.216.34.94.17 — 104.21.47.12
C.104.21.47.12 — 104.21.47.12
D.216.34.94.17 — 205.229.151.10
E.104.21.47.12 — 205.229.151.10
F.205.229.151.10 — 205.229.151.10
Answer: B

3. Which three types of applications are supported by the Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A.TN3270 access to mainframe
B.TN3270 ssh access to mainframe
C.TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems
D.Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
E.full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
Answer: ACD

4. Which two statements are true about initial access to the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)
A.The Admin has limited command line access through a serial terminal using "maintenance" at the console login.
B.The Admin has Unix command line access through a serial terminal using root / default as the userid and password.
C.The Admin has web configuration access to https://10.10.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
D.The Admin has web configuration access to https://192.168.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
E.The Admin has Unix command line access through a keyboard and monitor using root / default as the userid and password.
Answer: AD

5. Which two statements are true about the different FirePass hardware models? (Choose two.)
A.The FirePass 1000 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
B.The FirePass 4100 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
C.The FirePass 600 model will support the Portal Access feature if a license is purchased.
D.The FirePass 1000 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
E.The FirePass 4100 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
Answer: BE

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-512
Title : Exam Express(r) F5-big-ip v9 Local Traffic Management Advanced

1. Which statement is true concerning packet filters?
A.Filters cannot prevent application viruses.
B.Filters cannot prevent the BIG-IP synching process from taking place.
C.The order of filters does not affect which traffic is accepted or denied.
D.In addition to administrator-created filters, there always exists a "deny all" filter that processes traffic last.
Answer: A

2. If a self-IP’s port lockdown is set to "allow 443", which statement describes allowed communication to that address?
A.Access is available to the Configuration Utility.
B.Serial console access is prevented since only port 443 access is allowed.
C.Access may be available via SSH dependent upon the /etc/host.allow settings.
D.The partner BIG-IP will be able to synchronize and mirror connection and persistence information.
Answer: A

3. As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name for the BIG-IP. What would be the result if the two systems in a redundant pair were set to the same host name?
A.Host names do not matter in redundant pair communication.
B.In a redundant pair, the two systems will always have the same host name. The parameter is synchronized between the systems.
C.The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same self-IP addresses as the source system.
D.When the administrator attempts to access the configuration utility using the host name, they will always connect to the active system.
Answer: C

4. A site wishes to use an external monitor. Other than what is coded in the monitor script, what information must be configured on the BIG-IP for the monitor to be functional? (Choose two.)
A.BIG-IP must know the name of the program.
B.BIG-IP must know which functions the program is going to test.
C.BIG-IP must know the IP addresses of the devices that will be tested.
D.BIG-IP must know which node or member the results are to be applied to.
E.BIG-IP must know all services that are running on the system to be tested.
Answer: AD

5. Which file contains the allowed IP addresses for SSH access?
A./etc/hosts.deny
B./etc/sshd_allow
C./etc/hosts.allow
D./etc/sshd_secure
Answer: C

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-501
Title : F5 Big-Ip V4 Exam

1. You are using the Setup Utility. Which two statements about the DNS Proxy section are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the option is chosen, the IP address of a DNS server is entered here.
B. If the option is chosen, it allows the BIG-IP System to resolve host names for nodes.
C. If the option is chosen, the hostname of an available DNS server must be entered here.
D. If the option is chosen, the IP address of a DNS server on the same subnet must be entered here.
Answer: AB

2. Which of the following parameters can be specified with the Setup Utility? (Choose three.)
A. current time
B. password of the "root" user
C. IP address of an initial Virtual Server
D. IP address restrictions for access to the Configuration Utility
E. self IP addresses
Answer: BDE

3. When administrative users are created, which three access levels can they be granted through the BIG-IP Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. Web Read Only
C. CLI + Web Read Only
D. CLI + Full Web Read / Write
E. CLI + Partial Web Read / Write
Answer: ABD

4. Which IP address does the BIG-IP assign itself by default at startup, before the BIG-IP has been configured
A. 10.10.1.245 or 192.168.245.245
B. 192.168.1.127 or 192.168.1.245
C. 192.168.245.245 or 192.168.1.245
D. 172.16.1.245 or 172.16.245.245
Answer: C

5. Which three methods are available for authentication of administrative users logging on to BIG-IP’s web-based Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. Local LDAP database
B. Local Radius database
C. Remote LDAP database
D. Remote Radius database
E. Local master.passwd database
Answer: ACD

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-602
Title : Exam Express(r) MAXIMO 6 Certified EAM Consultant Exam

1. FlyNow Airlines performs materials management activities (Item, Inventory Balance tracking, Material Issues/Returns/Receipts) in an external ERP system. What integration points must be implemented in order to keep Maximo updated with the latest item balances and material usage costs?
A.Vendors, Item Master, Inventory
B.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts
C.Vendors, Chart of Accounts, Item Master
D.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts, Issues/Returns
Answer: D

2. FlyNow Airlines wants to display and store the name of the person entering a work order. What are the correct steps? (Choose THREE)
A.Run configdb.
B.Rebuild the maximo.ear file.
C.Import the changes to the xml file.
D.Add a display name field using the Application Designer.
E.Create a CROSSOVER domain and associate to the display name field.
Answer: ADE

3. FlyNow Airlines has a requirement to migrate active Job Plans from a legacy system to Maximo. The existing External Interface does not have a Job Plan inbound interface. Where are the references to the MBOs created?
A.External Systems
B.Integration Objects
C.Integration Interfaces
D.Database Configuration
Answer: B

4. Fleet Corporation requires a user dialog to display when a corrective maintenance work order is created and there is a Preventive Maintenance schedule that is due within the next seven days. What must be accomplished in order to address this requirement? (Choose TWO)
A.Extend the PM Class.
B.Set up a standard cron task.
C.Set the Alert Lead on the PM.
D.Configure the PM Alert Option.
E.Create an Alert Lead field on the PM.
Answer: CD

5. R. L. Rivers Company is trying to prevent purchasing from non-approved suppliers. Which method could be used to implement this policy?
A.Use Company (Vendor) status.
B.Create a Workflow approval process.
C.Use Application Designer to hide the Vendor field.
D.Use Purchase Contracts; make this a required field.
E.Set Security application to lock down Purchase Requisitions.
Answer: B

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-513
Title : Exam Express(r) F5 BIG-IP GTM v9.x

1. What must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?
A.the system’s dossier
B.the system’s base license
C.the system’s serial number
D.the system’s purchase order number
Answer: A

2. Which two ports must be enabled to establish communication between GTM Systems and other BIG-IP Systems? (Choose two.)
A.22
B.53
C.443
D.4353
E.4354
Answer: AD

3. If the config tool is complete, which three access methods are available by default for GTM administration and configuration on 520/540 platforms? (Choose three.)
A.network access via http
B.network access via https
C.network access via telnet
D.direct access via serial port
E.direct access via keyboard and monitor
Answer: BDE

4. After licensing the GTM System, what must be performed to complete activation?
A.reboot of system
B.manual restart of gtmd
C.manual restart of tmm
D.enter the command bigstart restart
Answer: A

5. When initially configuring the GTM System using the config tool, which two parameters can be set? (Choose two.)
A.System hostname
B.IP Address of management port
C.IP Address of the external VLAN
D.Default route for management port
E.Port lockdown of management port
Answer: BD

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-511
Title : Exam Express(r) F5 big-ip v9 Local Traffic Management

1. Which statement is true regarding fail-over?
A.Hardware fail-over is disabled by default.
B.Hardware fail-over can be used in conjunction with network failover.
C.If the hardware fail-over cable is disconnected, both BIG-IP devices will always assume the active role.
D.By default, hardware fail-over detects voltage across the fail-over cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.
Answer: B

2. The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.
A.Neither the pool nor it’s members or nodes has any monitor assigned.
B.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and all of the pool’s members have failed the monitor’s test.
C.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and some of the pool’s members have failed the monitor’s test.
D.A system-wide monitor has tested all nodes successfully, but the pool’s members have no specific monitor assigned to them.
Answer: B

3. Which two profile types would be required with a virtual server so that cookie persistence is enabled? (Choose two.)
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.HTTP
D.WWW
E.source address persistence
Answer: AC

4. A site has six members in a pool. Three of the servers are new and have more memory and a faster processor than the others. Assuming all other factors are equal and traffic should be sent to all members, which two load-balancing methods are appropriate? (Choose two.)
A.Priority
B.Observed
C.Round Robin
D.Ratio Member
Answer: BD

5. Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A.The 1500 hosts more ports than the 3400.
B.All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10, 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C.All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D.The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E.The 1500, 3400 and 6400 have greater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the 1000, 2400, and 5100.
Answer: DE

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-411
Title : VoiceXML Application Developer Exam

1. Which SSML element allows you to specify the speed with which rendered output is played?
A. the<prompt> element, using the rate attribute
B. the <prosody>element, using the rate attribute
C. the <say-as> element, using the duration attribute
D. the<emphasis> element, using the duration attribute
Answer: B

2. Which grammar rule recognizes these phrases?
Isaac Levi
Isaac the kid Levi
Isaac my friend Levi
Isaac Delbert Levi
Mao Yonghang
Mao the kid Yonghang
Mao my friend Yonghang
Mao Delbert Yonghang
A. picture
6. Which VoiceXML element can be used to transfer execution from one VoiceXML document to the other and return to the first VoiceXML document after the execution of the second VoiceXML document is completed?
A. <call>
B. <goto>
C. <submit>
D. <subdialog>
E. <function>
Answer: D

3. Which two code fragments write " rose " to a log? (Choose two.)
A. <log>rose</log>
B. <log name="rose">rose</log>
C. <var name="var1" expr="’rose’"/> <log><value expr="rose"/></log>
D. <var name="var1" expr="’rose’"/> <log><value expr="var1"/></log>
Answer: AD

4. Given the following VoiceXML code:
The objective of this code is to ask callers to enter their PIN. Which line must be changed for this code to achieve its objective?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 11
D. 15
Answer: B

5. The _____ attribute is used to identify the root document of a VoiceXML application.
A. root
B. main
C. parent
D. application
Answer: D

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-600
Title : Exam Express(r) MRO MAXIMO 5.2 Certified Consultant Exam

1. Against which kind of record can downtime be reported?
A.Location
B.Equipment
C.Condition Monitoring
D.Preventive Maintenance
Answer: B

2. Which three types of records can be assigned a Failure Class? (Choose three.)
A.Stock Item
B.Equipment
C.Work Order
D.Operating Location
Answer: BCD

3. The Work Order Failure Class field gets populated automatically from which two applications? (Choose two.)
A.PM
B.Labor
C.Job Plan
D.Locations
E.Equipment
Answer: DE

4. What are two valid reasons for creating a cloned application in MAXIMO? (Choose two.)
A.to access data from multiple MAXIMO databases
B.to restrict data access for a specific group of users
C.to allow various screen configurations for presenting the same data
D.to capture custom data not related to any existing MAXIMO application
Answer: BC

5. Which two statements are true about setting up and working with Master PM? (Choose two.)
A.The Master PM can override an Associated PM’s Job Plan Sequence.
B.Checking the Override Master PM Updates? check box updates the associated PM’s values with the Master PM values.
C.Start Date, Seasonal Date, and Extended date are the only date fields that Master PMs can update on Associated PMs.
D.Last Target Start Date, Last Completion Date, Meter 1 Estimated Next Due Date, and Meter 2 Estimated Next Due Date are the only fields that Master PMs can update on Associated PMs.
Answer: AC

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