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Exam : Foundry Networks FN0-202
Title : FNC4-7E Foundry Networks Certified Layer 4-7 Engineer

1. Which of the following are valid source addresses the ServerIron can use to perform its health checks?
A. The ServerIron Management IP address
B. The Real Server Ip address
C. Server Source IP defined on the ServerIron
D. The default gateway
Answer: AC

2. Using show server real, if you see UNBND:
A. The application cannot be found
B. The application is bound to the VIP
C. The VIP is bound to the real server
D. The application needs to be bound to the real server
E. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server
Answer: C

3. Using show server real, if you see SUSPECT under an application port
A. There is no link to the server
B. The application might not be available
C. The time between packets has increased
D. The server is reachable at Layer 3 but the application failed Layer 4 or 7 health checks
Answer: C

4. Which of the following best describes Direct Server Return (DSR)?
A. Client bypasses the SLB device and talks directly to the servers.
B. Client sends traffic to SLB device and SLB device responds with HTTP re-direct.
C. Server bypasses the SLB device and sends replies directly to the client.
D. Server replicates data onto other servers closer to the client.
Answer: C

5. 1. The Serveriron sends a TCP SYN packet to the server,
2. The SI waits one second and then checks for a SYN ACK reply from the server.
3. If the SYN ACK is received, then the ServerIron completes the test by sending TCP RESET to the server.
Describes what kind of Health Checks
A. Layer 4 UDP Three-way health check
B. Layer 3 TCP Three-way health check
C. Layer 4 TCP Three-way health check
D. Layer 3 UDP Three-way health check
Answer: C

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Exam : Foundry Networks FN0-103
Title : Foundry Networks Certified Network Professional

1. Which RMON group provides samplings of packet and error statistics captured at regular intervals?
A. events
B. alarms
C. statistics
D. history
Answer: D

2. How does a switch communicate bridge IDs to neighboring switches?
A. RIP
B. ICMP
C. IP
D. BPDU
Answer: D

3. Which routing solution prevents loop problems by sending a maximum hop count when a link goes down?
A. Split horizon
B. Poison reverse
C. STP
D. OSPF
Answer: B

4. What transport layer protocol provides a connection oriented service?
A. UDP
B. STP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C

5. Which of the following is a link state routing protocol?
A. IPX
B. LAT
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
Answer: D

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Exam : Foundry Networks FN0-125
Title : Foundry Networks Certified Network Engineer (FNCNE)

1. After Bridge elections have finished, in which 802.1d state will a Non-designated port remain?
A. Learning
B. Listening
C. Discarding
D. Blocking
Answer: D

2. In the diagram, ports e1 and e7 of sw-FWS1 have RSTP port titles assigned. Select the combination of port titles that match the ports.
A. e1: Root Port e7: Alternate Port
B. e1: Designated Port e7: Designated Port
C. e1: Alternate Port e7: Root Port
D. e1: Backup Port e7: Designated Port
E. e1: Designated Port e7: Backup Port.
Answer: B

3. The diagram shows an OSPF network with no designated router (DR) and no backup designated router (BDR). Which of the following statements identifiy which routers will be selected DR and BDR?
A. Router C is DR, Router B is BDR
B. Router B is DR, Router A is BDR
C. Router B is BDR, Router A is DR
D. Router A is DR, Router C is BDR
Answer: B

4. What is the maximum hop count allowed by RIP?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 255
D. no limit
Answer: A

5. What is the difference between TACACS+ and TACACS?
A. TACACS is an enhancement to TACACS+
B. TACACS is TCP based and TACACS+ is UDP based
C. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses TCP.
D. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses UDP.
Answer: C

6. Firewalls can be assigned to which group?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

7. Which RMON group provides samplings of packet and error statistics captured at regular intervals?
A. events
B. alarms
C. statistics
D. history
Answer: D

8. On a ServerIron XL configured for firewall load balancing, the packet are load balanced using:
A. The firewall path
B. The session tables traded by the XLs
C. The MAC address set in the ServerIron
D. The hash value derived from the source and destination IP addresses
Answer: D

9. Which of the following ranges are defined as well-known port numbers?
A. 0-255
B. 1-256
C. 1-1023
D. 1-2048
Answer: C

10. The firewall path describes the path
A. To the next firewall
B. For the health check
C. To the firewall partners
D. To the ServerIron on the other side of the firewall
Answer: B

11. What transport layer protocol provides a connection oriented service?
A. UDP
B. STP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C

12. Switch sw-FWS2 (see diagram) is running 802.1w (RSTP), with default settings. It has a crossover cable between ports e38 and e48. Select the combination of port titles that match the ports.
A. e38: Root Port e48: Alternate Port
B. e38: Designated Port e48: Designated Port
C. e38: Alternate Port e48: Root Port
D. e38: Backup Port e48: Designated Port
E. e38: Designated Port e48: Backup Port.
Answer: E

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Exam : Foundry Networks FN0-405
Title : Foundry Networks Certified Network Professional

1. Click the Exhibit button. Which bridge in Figure 10 will be a Non-Designated Bridge?
A. R&D
B. HR
C. Distribution_1
D. Distribution_2
Answer: D

2. Which of the following would be used to apply the same policies to a group of BGP neighbors?
A. route-reflector group
B. Community group
C. Confederation group
D. Peer group
Answer: D

3. Click the Exhibit button. Which bridge or bridges in Figure 11 will be a Non-Designated Bridge?
A. R&D
B. HR
C. Distribution_1
D. Distribution_2
Answer: AB

4. Click the Exhibit button. Which port or ports in Figure 11 will be blocked?
A. R&D ?e3
B. R&D ?e1
C. HR ?e10
D. HR ?e11
E. Distribution_2 ?e10
F. Distribution_2 ?e1
Answer: AD

5. Click the Exhibit button. Which port or ports in Figure 10 will be blocked?
A. R&D ?e3
B. R&D ?e1
C. R&D ?20
D. HR ?e10
E. HR ?e11
F. HR ?e20
G. Distribution_2 ?e10
H. Distribution_2 ?e1
Answer: CH

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Exam : Foundry Networks FN0-240
Title : FNC4-7P Foundry Networks Certified Layer 4-7 Engineer

1. The maximum length of the URLcharacter is the same for the ServerIron XL and the ServerIron 400 product families?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

2. When using Layer 7 Switching, what command would you use to instruct the ServerIron to buffer all request packets until all the necessary information is received insuring that the whole HTTP header will be saved?
A. port http
B. port http buffer-for-end-http
C. port http wait-for-end-header
D. port http wait-for-end-http
Answer: D

3. sFlow is supported on the:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
Answer: EFG

4. SYN-Guard and SYN-Defense can be configured on:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
Answer: BCDEFG

5. The best practice method to configure SSL Layer7 switching is
A. URL switching
B. Cookie switching
C. Session ID switching
D. Round robin
Answer: C

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Exam : Foundry Networks FN0-202
Title : FNC4-7E Foundry Networks Certified Layer 4-7 Engineer

1. Which of the following best describes Direct Server Return (DSR)?
A. Client bypasses the SLB device and talks directly to the servers.
B. Client sends traffic to SLB device and SLB device responds with HTTP re-direct.
C. Server bypasses the SLB device and sends replies directly to the client.
D. Server replicates data onto other servers closer to the client.
Answer: C

2. To access a remote server, configure:
A. Server source-nat
B. Source-nat in the same subnet as the ServerIron Management IP
C. Server source-ip and source-nat in the same subnet as the ServerIron Management IP
D. Server source-ip for the remotes subnet
Answer: C

3. What is the well-known name for port 80?
A. HTTP
B. POP3
C. IMAP4
D. FTP
Answer: A

4. Which of the following are valid source addresses the ServerIron can use to perform its health checks?
A. The ServerIron Management IP address
B. The Real Server Ip address
C. Server Source IP defined on the ServerIron
D. The default gateway
Answer: AC

5. Using show server real, if you see UNBND:
A. The application cannot be found
B. The application is bound to the VIP
C. The VIP is bound to the real server
D. The application needs to be bound to the real server
E. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server
Answer: C

6. What best describes the role that the Virtual IP (VIP) Address plays in SLB?
A. The Virtual IP maps multiple logical addresses to one physical port number,
B. The Virtual IP address maps one logical address to multiple physical servers
C. The Virtual IP responds to ARPs with the real servers IP address
D. The Virtual IP maps ARPs with the real servers IP cache table.
Answer: B

7. The Foundry ServerIron uses predictors to determine how to load balance the traffic flow. Which of the following is not a valid predictor?
A. Least Connections
B. Round Robin
C. Least port priority
D. Response Time/Least Connections
Answer: C

8. What is the default SLB behavior for Server Load Balancing for packets from the ServerIron to the real server?
Choices:
1)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination translates address from the VIP to the real serverIP
b.Source translate the clients IP address
2)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination translates address from the VIP to the real server IP
b.Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged
3)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination leave the clients IP address unchanged
b.Source Translate the real server IP address into a VIP address
4)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination Leave the real server IP address unchanged
b.Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

9. If the real servers are directly connected to the ServerIron, the ServerIron replaces the:
A. Source IP address with the real servers address
B. Destination IP address with the real servers address
C. Source address with the ServerIrons server source-ip address
D. Source and destination addresses with the ServerIrons server source-ip and the real servers IP addresses.
Answer: B

10. Using show server real, if you see SUSPECT under an application port
A. There is no link to the server
B. The application might not be available
C. The time between packets has increased
D. The server is reachable at Layer 3 but the application failed Layer 4 or 7 health checks
Answer: C

11. What ServerIron functionality allows a client to connect to the same server to which it previously established an SSL connection? (Select all that apply)
A. sticky
B. SSL session ID switching
C. cookie switching
D. HTTP header hashing
Answer: AB

12. 1. The Serveriron sends a TCP SYN packet to the server,
2. The SI waits one second and then checks for a SYN ACK reply from the server.
3. If the SYN ACK is received, then the ServerIron completes the test by sending TCP RESET to the server.
Describes what kind of Health Checks
A. Layer 4 UDP Three-way health check
B. Layer 3 TCP Three-way health check
C. Layer 4 TCP Three-way health check
D. Layer 3 UDP Three-way health check
Answer: C

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Exam : Foundry Networks FN0-125
Title : Foundry Networks Certified Network Engineer (FNCNE)

1. The firewall path describes the path
A. To the next firewall
B. For the health check
C. To the firewall partners
D. To the ServerIron on the other side of the firewall
Answer: B

2. Firewalls can be assigned to which group?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

3. What is the maximum hop count allowed by RIP?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 255
D. no limit
Answer: A

4. On a ServerIron XL configured for firewall load balancing, the packet are load balanced using:
A. The firewall path
B. The session tables traded by the XLs
C. The MAC address set in the ServerIron
D. The hash value derived from the source and destination IP addresses
Answer: D

5. What transport layer protocol provides a connection oriented service?
A. UDP
B. STP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C

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Exam : Foundry Networks FN0-103
Title : Foundry Networks Certified Network Professional

1. Which routing solution prevents loop problems by sending a maximum hop count when a link goes down?
A. Split horizon
B. Poison reverse
C. STP
D. OSPF
Answer: B

2. Which of the following ranges are defined as well-known port numbers?
A. 0-255
B. 1-256
C. 1-1023
D. 1-2048
Answer: C

3. What transport layer protocol provides a connection oriented service?
A. UDP
B. STP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C

4. What is the standard IP multicast address for all routers?
A. 224.0.0.18
B. 224.0.0.1
C. 224.0.0.0
D. 224.0.0.2
Answer: D

5. BPDUs send configuration information messages using what type of frames?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. tcp
D. udp
Answer: B

6. Which of the following is a link state routing protocol?
A. IPX
B. LAT
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
Answer: D

7. What is the difference between TACACS+ and TACACS?
A. TACACS is an enhancement to TACACS+
B. TACACS is TCP based and TACACS+ is UDP based
C. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses TCP.
D. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses UDP.
Answer: C

8. How does a switch communicate bridge IDs to neighboring switches?
A. RIP
B. ICMP
C. IP
D. BPDU
Answer: D

9. Which 802.1d state will a switches Root Port and Designated Port enter after the 2 nd expiration of the forwarding-delay timer.
A. Learning
B. Listening
C. Forwarding
D. Blocking
Answer: C

10. Switch sw-FWS2 (see diagram) is running 802.1w (RSTP), with default settings. It has a crossover cable between ports e38 and e48. Select the combination of port titles that match the ports.
A. e38: Root Port e48: Alternate Port
B. e38: Designated Port e48: Designated Port
C. e38: Alternate Port e48: Root Port
D. e38: Backup Port e48: Designated Port
E. e38: Designated Port e48: Backup Port.
Answer: E

11. OSPF routers with membership in multiple areas are known as which of the following?
A. autonomous system boundary router
B. autonomous system
C. area border router
D. link-state advertisement
Answer: C

12. Which RMON group provides samplings of packet and error statistics captured at regular intervals?
A. events
B. alarms
C. statistics
D. history
Answer: D

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Exam : Foundry Networks FN0-240
Title : FNC4-7P Foundry Networks Certified Layer 4-7 Engineer

1. An active health check is done:
A. At each user request
B. According to the configured time values
C. When the Reassign-Threshold is exceeded
D. When there is a status change from the server
Answer: B

2. An HTTP health check can return:
A. A keepalive
B. Status code
C. Content verification
D. A value to increment the Reassign-Threshold
Answer: BC

3. The maximum length of the URLcharacter is the same for the ServerIron XL and the ServerIron 400 product families?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

4. The best practice method to configure SSL Layer7 switching is
A. URL switching
B. Cookie switching
C. Session ID switching
D. Round robin
Answer: C

5. What must be done before a Health-Check Policy will take effect?
A. The Health-Check Policy must be bound to the VIP
B. The Health-Check Policy intervals and reset must be define
C. The Health-Check Policy must be attached to an application port on a real server
D. The Health-Check Policy must be configured to use 3-way handshaking
Answer: C

6. Which of the following Health Check types are performed at Layer 7?
A. Arp Request
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. IMAP4
E. UDP
F. LDAP
G. MMS
H. RSTP
Answer: CDFG

7. When using Layer 7 Switching, what command would you use to instruct the ServerIron to buffer all request packets until all the necessary information is received insuring that the whole HTTP header will be saved?
A. port http
B. port http buffer-for-end-http
C. port http wait-for-end-header
D. port http wait-for-end-http
Answer: D

8. sFlow is supported on the:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
Answer: EFG

9. What will be the corresponding Virtual MAC Address belonging to a configured VIP 175.30.15.10 (AF:1E:0F:0A)
A. VMACs have to be manually configured
B. AF:1E:0F:0A:FF:FF
C. 02:0C:DB:1E:0F:0A
D. 02:0C:AF:1E:0F:0A
Answer: C

10. A UDP application is considered down if the server returns:
A. No packet
B. A garbage packet
C. An UDP probe packet
D. An ICMP unreachable packet
Answer: D

11. How many simultaneous levels of health checks can be configured on the ServerIron to health check the same real server
A. Layer 3, Layer4
B. Layer4, Layer7
C. Layer3, Layer4, Layer7, content match
D. Layer 4, Layer7, content match
Answer: B

12. SYN-Guard and SYN-Defense can be configured on:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
Answer: BCDEFG

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Exam : Foundry Networks FN0-405
Title : Foundry Networks Certified Network Professional

1. Click the Exhibit button. Which bridge or bridges in Figure 11 will be a Non-Designated Bridge?
A. R&D
B. HR
C. Distribution_1
D. Distribution_2
Answer: AB

2. What cli command shows the flap dampening statistics?
A. show ip bgp summary
B. show ip bgp neighbor <ip addr> flap-summary
C. show ip bgp neighbor <ip addr> flap-statistics
D. show ip bgp neighbor <ip addr> route-flap
Answer: C

3. Click the Exhibit button. Which port or ports in Figure 11 will be blocked?
A. R&D ?e3
B. R&D ?e1
C. HR ?e10
D. HR ?e11
E. Distribution_2 ?e10
F. Distribution_2 ?e1
Answer: AD

4. What is the process of artificially lengthening the AS-Path called?
A. AS-Path pre-pending
B. AS-Path appending
C. AS-Path filtering
D. AS-Path extension
Answer: A

5. Click the Exhibit button. What does the ??in the status field of network 204.17.220.0/24 indicate?
A. This is the best route to use
B. This route is currently dampened and is unusable
C. Has a history of flapping and is unreachable now
D. Has a history of flapping but is currently usable
Answer: D

6. Click the Exhibit button. Which port or ports in Figure 10 will be blocked?
A. R&D ?e3
B. R&D ?e1
C. R&D ?20
D. HR ?e10
E. HR ?e11
F. HR ?e20
G. Distribution_2 ?e10
H. Distribution_2 ?e1
Answer: CH

7. What is the BGP4 state called when the router is waiting to start the BGP4 process?
A. Admin
B. Connect
C. Active
D. Idle
E. Confirm
F. Established
Answer: D

8. Router pringfield?has three iBGP peers: Router omer? Router arge? and Router aggie? Routers Homer, Marge, and Maggie are advertising the Router ?pringfield?has three iBGP peers: Router ?omer? Router ?arge? and Router ?aggie? Routers Homer, Marge, and Maggie are advertising the same destination networks. Router Homer announces routes with the default local preference. Router Marge announces the same routes with a local preference of 200. Router Maggie announces the same routes with a local preference of 1. Which path does Router Springfield take?
A. Router Homer
B. Router Maggie
C. Router Marge
D. not applicable, because local preference only applies to ebgp peers
E. not applicable, because local preference only applies to local router
Answer: C

9. Which of the following are advantages of Peer Groups? Choose all that apply.
A. Allows resetting neighbor sessions on a Peer Group basis
B. Simplifies neighbor configuration
C. Route updates from one EBGP neighbor in a peer group can be passed to other EBGP neighbors in the same peer group
D. Conserves memory
Answer: ABD

10. Click the Exhibit button. Which bridge in Figure 10 will be a Non-Designated Bridge?
A. R&D
B. HR
C. Distribution_1
D. Distribution_2
Answer: D

11. A change in a route state, from up to down or down to up is called? A change in a route? state, from up to down or down to up is called?
A. route dampen
B. port flap
C. route flap
D. port dampen
Answer: C

12. Which of the following would be used to apply the same policies to a group of BGP neighbors?
A. route-reflector group
B. Community group
C. Confederation group
D. Peer group
Answer: D