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Exam : SNIA S10-100
Title : Snia Atorage Network Foundations Exam

1. Which architecture allows system-to-system communication and user level DMA with as little CPU interaction as possible, most particularly for clustering?
A. FAIS
B. FC-VI
C. FC-CT
D. FC-SW
Answer: B

2. Which two sub-components are required in a specialized NAS operating system? (Choose two.)
A. file system
B. user interface
C. process scheduler
D. communication protocols
Answer: AD

3. What are the SCSI addressing components handled by the SCSI protocol?
A. SCSI bus, logical unit
B. SCSI bus, target ID, logical unit
C. SCSI bus, target ID, adaptor number
D. SCSI bus, adaptor number, logical unit
Answer: B

4. Which protocol is used for backups on an ethernet based network?
A. FCIP
B. NDMP
C. iDMP
D. iSNS
Answer: B

5. Which virtualization technique requires the addition of an agent to each host for the purpose of managing storage allocation?
A. host-based LVM
B. in-band appliance
C. out-of-band appliance
D. array-based LUN masking
Answer: C

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Exam : SNIA S10-200
Title : Snia storage network management/administration

1. You are troubleshooting a communication problem between a host and a storage array. Both nodes are seen by the switch. The host can talk to the array port but has not assigned a target ID to it. What is the most likely current scenario?
A. There have been no logins
B. Both nodes have completed Fabric Logins but no Port or Process Logins
C. Both nodes have completed Fabric and Port Logins but no Process Login
D. Both nodes have completed Fabric, Port, and Process Login, there is some other problem.
Answer: C

2. A SAN architect is asked to implement an infrastructure for a production and a test environment using Fibre Channel devices. Additionally, the customer would like the Fibre Channel device for production and the device for test to communicate over the IP network to remote hosts, but not to each other. Which protocol should the architect implement?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. iSCSI
D. SCSI-FCP
Answer: B

3. A four-way cluster is attached to two fabrics. Each member has two HBAs connected to each fabric. Each fabric has two array connections. SCSI Queue Depth for HBAs = 8 and Storage devices = 256 per port. Each cluster member is a primary for one application. All LUNs appear on all storage ports with workload equally distributed across all. Each host has two dedicated HBAs for tape that can each see four independent LTO II tape drives. All files are large and involve sequential I/O. Performance reporting shows a large read pending at the host during multi-threaded backup. What is the maximum value you should set for SCSI Queue Depth?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

4. A customer has determined a primary and secondary threat radius. The primary threat radius is 100km and the secondary threat radius is 500km. The company legally needs an exact copy of their data replicated to a remote site. They also want a replica outside of the secondary threat radius. What should they do?
A. Synchronously replicate their data to a facility 500 km away.
B. Asynchronously replicate their data to a facility 500 km away.
C. Asynchronously replicate their data to a facility a 100 km away and synchronously replicate their data to a second facility 500 km away.
D. Synchronously replicate their data to a facility a 100 km away and asynchronously replicate their data to a second facility 500 km away.
Answer: D

5. A customer is installing a Fibre Channel storage area network for a small test and development lab. The lab contains two small Windows servers and a single ten disk storage subsystem. The customer desires to deploy a fully redundant SAN for this environment with minimal cost. What is necessary to meet the customer’s requirement for full redundancy of the SAN?
A. one director class fabric switch
B. two departmental fabric switches
C. Ethernet connectivity to each component in the SAN
D. at least one HBA in each server being attached to the SAN
Answer: B

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Exam : SNIA S10-101
Title : SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam

1. From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A. in the event of loss of power at the primary data center
B. when an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system
C. in the event of litigation
D. when a user accidentally deletes an important email
Answer: C

2. What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A. Uses existing Ethernet technologies.
B. Supports up to 126 devices.
C. Lowers propagation delay.
D. Leverages system administrator knowledge.
Answer: AD

3. Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door
B. leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, access door
C. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel
D. leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, pickup reel
Answer: A

4. What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A. Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication.
B. Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time.
C. Source and remote replication always have identical data.
D. Synchronous replication only used for extended distances.
Answer: C

5. What is the basic order of a snapshot creation process?
A. flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume, release the application
B. flush file system, quiesce the application, take snapshot, backup the volume
C. quiesce the application, flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
D. flush file system, quiesce the application, flush the file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
Answer: C

6. What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber with a 850nm shortwave laser at 1 Gbps?
A. 500 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 70 meters
Answer: A

7. You no longer have any port availability in the company’s switch fabric. There is a decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches.
B. The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch.
C. A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding.
D. The domain priority is inconsistent.
Answer: C

8. Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
E. RAID 10
Answer: CD

9. What is the function of the "head" on the disk drive?
A. It is used to read or write data onto the disk media.
B. It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located.
C. It is where the data is stored or retrieved.
D. It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media.
Answer: A

10. Which two have World Wide Names? (Choose two.)
A. switches
B. disk arrays
C. zone sets
D. servers
E. HBAs
Answer: AE

11. What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation for a financial services customer?
A. data integrity
B. data redundancy
C. disk latency of less than 15ms
D. high availability
Answer: A

12. Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A. SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B. SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C. SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D. SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Answer: C

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Exam : SNIA S10-101
Title : SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam

1. From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A. in the event of loss of power at the primary data center
B. when an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system
C. in the event of litigation
D. when a user accidentally deletes an important email
Answer: C

2. You no longer have any port availability in the company’s switch fabric. There is a decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches.
B. The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch.
C. A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding.
D. The domain priority is inconsistent.
Answer: C

3. What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A. Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication.
B. Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time.
C. Source and remote replication always have identical data.
D. Synchronous replication only used for extended distances.
Answer: C

4. Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A. SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B. SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C. SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D. SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Answer: C

5. What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A. Uses existing Ethernet technologies.
B. Supports up to 126 devices.
C. Lowers propagation delay.
D. Leverages system administrator knowledge.
Answer: AD

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Exam : SNIA S10-300
Title : Snia storage architect-assessment,planning&design

1. What is the goal of a SAN designed with no single point of failure?
A. to provide redundant paths to data
B. to have a good data backup system
C. to minimize unexpected loss of data access
D. to have clustered servers so that one is always available
Answer: C

2. Your SAN currently has eight server ports and eight disk ports on one 16 port switch. Each server port requires 80 MB/s of one-way bandwidth, spread out evenly among the storage devices. The customer would like to add 28 server ports along with 28 disk ports. Each server will evenly distribute its traffic on each disk. Using 16 port 1 Gb switches, which topology should you select to minimize the number of switches and ISLs required?
A. star
B. full mesh
C. core-edge
D. point-to-point
Answer: C

3. You have been tasked with identifying upgrade options for your networked storage. Which two should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Only select hardware and software that is SMI-S compliant.
B. Share all received information openly with all vendors involved.
C. Understand needs and requirements as well capabilities of your existing technology.
D. Enlist legal advice or support of your purchasing department when creating RFI, RFP, and RFQs.
Answer: CD

4. What are three key advantages of deploying a director-based solution over a mesh of switches? (Choose three.)
A. lower cost
B. consistent latency
C. improved availability
D. increased hop count
E. ease of management
Answer: BCE

5. What is the primary objective of the storage capacity planning process?
A. To demonstrate the effects of changes in storage service levels.
B. To reach agreement with application representatives and management over the storage requirements.
C. To produce a capacity plan at agreed intervals which fits into the business planning cycle, e.g. the financial year.
D. To calculate the effects on ILM service levels, array and fabric utilization of the estimated demand over the period of the planning horizon.
Answer: C

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Exam : SNIA S10-300
Title : Snia storage architect-assessment,planning&design

1. A customer is using host based virtualization to mirror critical data between two vendors disk arrays. Which two scenarios are true? (Choose two)
A. The host can use the same HBA to connect to both arrays
B. The customer can adhere to either vendors SAN design rules
C. The customer must adhere to both vendors SAN design rules
D. The host must use different HBAs with different firmware to connect to each array
Answer: CD

2. Your SAN currently has eight server ports and eight disk ports on one 16 port switch. Each server port requires 80 MB/s of one-way bandwidth, spread out evenly among the storage devices. The customer would like to add 28 server ports along with 28 disk ports. Each server will evenly distribute its traffic on each disk. Using 16 port 1 Gb switches, which topology should you select to minimize the number of switches and ISLs required?
A. star
B. full mesh
C. core-edge
D. point-to-point
Answer: C

3. A customer has a terabyte database and is required to back up the data daily. The SLA has allotted 6 hours for completion of the backup from 7:00 P.M. until 1:00 A.M. However, the customer has a tape library with only five SDLT tape devices running at native speeds of 40 GB/hour. Which two should you do to successfully meet the expected SLA requirements? (Choose two.)
A. interleave data streams
B. enable server-based compression
C. use multiple data streams across multiple devices
D. prioritize the schedule to launch during periods of greatest inactivity
Answer: AC

4. You have been tasked with identifying upgrade options for your networked storage. Which two should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Only select hardware and software that is SMI-S compliant.
B. Share all received information openly with all vendors involved.
C. Understand needs and requirements as well capabilities of your existing technology.
D. Enlist legal advice or support of your purchasing department when creating RFI, RFP, and RFQs.
Answer: CD

5. An administrator has put the database recovery logs on the same volume group as the data files. The administrator is going to restore the data files from a snapshot. What should be done first?
A. do nothing
B. restore the database to a different server
C. copy the production server recovery logs to a safe location
D. create a snapshot of the recovery logs and then restore the recovery logs after restoring the data files
Answer: C

6. When implementing a high performance NAS solution you must check for which two items? (Choose two.)
A. Ensure the network is full duplex.
B. Ensure that hosts have 100Mb NICs.
C. Ensure the network is at least 100Mb.
D. Ensure routers are configured for OSPF.
Answer: AC

7. What is the primary objective of the storage capacity planning process?
A. To demonstrate the effects of changes in storage service levels.
B. To reach agreement with application representatives and management over the storage requirements.
C. To produce a capacity plan at agreed intervals which fits into the business planning cycle, e.g. the financial year.
D. To calculate the effects on ILM service levels, array and fabric utilization of the estimated demand over the period of the planning horizon.
Answer: C

8. What are three key advantages of deploying a director-based solution over a mesh of switches? (Choose three.)
A. lower cost
B. consistent latency
C. improved availability
D. increased hop count
E. ease of management
Answer: BCE

9. What is the goal of a SAN designed with no single point of failure?
A. to provide redundant paths to data
B. to have a good data backup system
C. to minimize unexpected loss of data access
D. to have clustered servers so that one is always available
Answer: C

10. When planning a NAS solution, which two sub-processes are associated with NAS Service Capacity Management? (Choose two.)
A. Define future requirements.
B. Manage peak demand for NAS services.
C. Establish IOPS monitoring and exception thresholds.
D. Run reports on the storage and network utilization and IOPS of components.
Answer: BC

11. What is the most important factor in determining sustained bandwidth in an IP SAN with high bandwidth with long delays?
A. zero-copy TCP
B. IP fragmentation
C. Ethernet MTU size
D. TCP sliding window size
Answer: D

12. A customer has a disk subsystem with eight ports. Each port delivers 200 MB/s. The customer wants a solution designed which allows access from 32 servers with no single point of failure. Which number of HBAs and the associated throughput, provide server access to the disk subsystem?
A. 16 HBAs, 75 MB/s
B. 32 HBAs, 90 MB/s
C. 64 HBAs, 25 MB/s
D. 64 HBAs, 50 MB/s
Answer: C